NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:
- A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect.
- B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence.
- C. addiction is the term used to describe physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance.
- D. the client has a dual diagnosis of substance abuse and chronic back pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Drug tolerance is characterized by the ability to ingest a larger dose without adverse effects and decreased sensitivity to the substance. In this scenario, the client needing an increased dose of hydrocodone to achieve the same pain relief indicates tolerance developing, not addiction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes drug dependence, where the individual is preoccupied with the drug and has a loss of control. Choice C is incorrect because addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a dual diagnosis, which is the coexistence of substance abuse and psychiatric disorders, not the development of tolerance to a drug.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:
- A. That can be assessed
- B. That is in situ
- C. With increasing lymph node involvement
- D. With distant metastasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.
3. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:
- A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
- B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
- C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
- D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.
4. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:
- A. affects both genders equally.
- B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
- C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
- D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.
5. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:
- A. feelings about what has been described
- B. thoughts about what has been described
- C. possible solutions to the problem
- D. intent in sharing the description
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access