Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

2. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

3. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

4. Which of the following factors can impact an individual's ability to give informed consent?

• A. IQ
• B. educational level
• C. pain medications
• D. financial status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain medications might alter alertness, thought processes, and reactions, potentially impacting an individual's ability to give informed consent. It is recommended to approach a client for consent at least 4 hours after the last dose of pain medicine to minimize any influence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While IQ and educational level may affect how information is presented during the discussion process, they do not directly impact informed-consent decision-making. Financial status is also not a direct factor in an individual's ability to provide informed consent, unlike pain medications which can directly affect cognitive functions and decision-making abilities.

5. A client reports hearing voices. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Touch the client to help him return to reality.
• B. Leave the client alone until reality returns.
• C. Ask the client to describe what is happening.
• D. Tell the client there are no voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports hearing voices, it might indicate hallucinations. It is essential for the nurse to ask the client to describe what is happening to gain a better understanding of the hallucinations. This approach helps in assessing the severity and content of the hallucinations, which can guide further interventions. Touching the client without consent can be intrusive and may escalate the situation, violating the client's personal space. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue of hallucinations and can lead to potential risks if the client is distressed. Telling the client there are no voices denies their experience, invalidates their feelings, and can result in mistrust between the client and the nurse.

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