Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) in the long-term care unit who has another LPN and a nursing assistant on the nursing team is planning task assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the LPN?

• A. Monitoring a client receiving oxygen who requires frequent pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments
• B. Assisting a client who is wearing eye patches and requires assistance with hygiene measures
• C. Feeding a client on bedrest who needs assistance with feeding
• D. Turning a client who must be turned and repositioned every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse assigns tasks for a client's care to another staff member, the nurse is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks based on the educational level and competency of the staff member. In this scenario, the LPN should be assigned the task of monitoring a client receiving oxygen who requires frequent pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments. This is because the LPN is competent to perform these tasks and can accurately note changes in the client's condition. Tasks such as feeding a client, turning and repositioning a client, and assisting with hygiene measures, which are noninvasive interventions, can be assigned to a nursing assistant. These tasks do not require the same level of assessment and monitoring as the respiratory treatments and pulse oximetry monitoring.

2. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy
• B. A client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask
• C. A client preparing for discharge after surgery
• D. A client requiring a tube feeding through a gastrostomy tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.

3. What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?

• A. Explosion
• B. Falls from second-story windows
• C. Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
• D. Inhalation injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.

4. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?

• A. "I should wear earplugs during the test."?
• B. "I should remove my metal jewelry before the test."?
• C. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my pacemaker."?
• D. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my artificial hip."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is, '"I should wear earplugs during the test,"?' as MRI scanners produce loud noises requiring ear protection. Metal objects, including jewelry, are not allowed inside the MRI room due to safety concerns related to the magnetic field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is wrong because metal objects, including jewelry, are not permitted in the MRI room. Choices C and D are incorrect as having a pacemaker or an artificial hip raises concerns due to the magnetic field in MRI, requiring special precautions or considerations. It is crucial for individuals with such implants to inform their healthcare provider to assess the risks and determine the appropriate course of action.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

Similar Questions