NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
2. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?
- A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
- D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.
3. While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:
- A. psychiatric disorders' higher prevalence in addicted populations
- B. individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse
- C. the importance of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings
- D. the significant impact of undetected substance problems on the treatment of psychiatric disorders
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.
4. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?
- A. 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water solution
- C. Sterile water
- D. Heparin sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, Heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood.
5. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?
- A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
- B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
- C. A red, beefy tongue
- D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.
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