Nursing Elites

1. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?

• A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
• B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
• C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
• D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.

2. The nurse who was not promoted then went to the utility room and slammed several cupboard doors while looking for Kleenex. This behavior exemplifies:

• A. displacement.
• B. sublimation
• C. conversion.
• D. reaction formation.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: Displacement unconsciously transfers emotions associated with a person, object, or situation to another less threatening person, object, or situation. In this scenario, the nurse slammed doors instead of expressing anger towards the promoted nurse or the administrator who made the promotion decision. Sublimation is the unconscious process of substituting constructive activity for unacceptable impulses. Since slamming cupboard doors is not a constructive activity, this choice is incorrect. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into physical symptoms, which is not demonstrated in the given behavior. Reaction formation keeps unacceptable feelings or behaviors out of awareness by displaying the opposite feeling or behavior, which is not the case here.

3. A 5-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?

• A. Decreased appetite
• B. A low-grade fever
• C. Chest congestion
• D. Constant swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A complication of a tonsillectomy is bleeding, and constant swallowing may indicate bleeding. Decreased appetite is expected after a tonsillectomy, as is a low-grade fever; thus, answers A and B are incorrect. Chest congestion, as mentioned in answer C, is not typical of tonsillectomy complications, making it an incorrect choice.

4. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?

• A. A pair of forceps
• B. A torque wrench
• C. A pair of wire cutters
• D. A screwdriver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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