Nursing Elites

1. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?

• A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
• B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
• C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
• D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.

2. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

3. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

4. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

• A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
• B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
• C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
• D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

5. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "I believe in your strength to learn how to manage your finances in time."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.

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