Nursing Elites

1. You have been assigned to take an apical pulse for one of the patients on the nursing unit. How will you do this?

• A. You will place the stethoscope over the heart and listen for any irregular beats.
• B. You will place the stethoscope over the heart and count the beats per minute.
• C. You will place your fingertip over the patient's wrist and feel for any irregular beats.
• D. You will place your fingertip over the patient's wrist and count the beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To take an apical pulse accurately, you should place the stethoscope over the heart and count the number of beats per minute. This method provides a precise assessment of the heart rate. While listening for irregular beats is essential for assessing the heart's rhythm, the primary objective of taking an apical pulse is to determine the heart rate. Choices C and D are incorrect because the apical pulse is not taken at the wrist; instead, it is obtained by auscultating at the apex of the heart, usually at the point where the fifth intercostal space meets the midclavicular line.

2. You see a sign over Mary Jones' bed when you arrive at 7 am to begin your day shift. The sign says, 'NPO'. Ms. Jones is on a regular diet. The patient asks for milk and some crackers. You _____________.

• A. can give her the milk but not the crackers
• B. can give her both the milk and the crackers
• C. can give her the crackers but not the milk
• D. cannot give her anything to eat or drink

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that you cannot give her anything to eat or drink. 'NPO' is the standard abbreviation for 'nothing by mouth,' indicating that the patient should not consume any food or liquids. It is crucial to adhere to this restriction to prevent any potential harm or complications in the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'NPO' clearly specifies that the patient should not have anything to eat or drink, including milk and crackers. Providing these items could lead to adverse effects, so it is essential to follow the 'NPO' directive strictly.

3. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

4. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

5. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?

• A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
• B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
• C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
• D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At the age of 10, children are in the concrete operations stage according to Piaget. They are capable of mature thought when allowed to manipulate and organize objects. This means they can think logically, organize facts, and understand cause-and-effect relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While simple associations of ideas may occur, the key cognitive ability at this stage is the capacity for logical thought and organization of information. Interpretation of events from their own perspective is more characteristic of younger children, and conclusions based on previous experiences are more aligned with older children or adults.

Similar Questions