NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is:
- A. Verify correct placement of the tube
- B. Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order
- C. Aspirate gastric contents to determine the amount of the last feeding remaining in the stomach
- D. Ensure that the feeding solution is at room temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing to administer enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube is to verify the correct placement of the tube. Proper placement of the tube is vital to prevent complications such as aspiration into the lungs. The definitive methods to confirm the position of the nasogastric tube include visualization through an x-ray or aspirating stomach contents and checking their pH (usually pH 1 to 5). Aspirated stomach content can also be tested for bilirubin to confirm placement in the stomach. Choice B, checking that the feeding solution matches the dietary order, is important for ensuring the correct nutrition is provided but is not as critical as verifying tube placement to prevent potential harm. Choice C, aspirating gastric contents to determine the amount of the last feeding remaining in the stomach, is a common nursing practice but is not the most crucial action when compared to ensuring correct tube placement. Choice D, ensuring that the feeding solution is at room temperature, is relevant for patient comfort and preventing thermal injury but is not as essential as confirming correct tube placement to prevent serious complications.
2. A client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, what should the nurse's first action be?
- A. Start a peripheral IV
- B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
- C. Establish an airway
- D. Obtain the crash cart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client has no pulse or respirations, the initial action recommended by the American Heart Association is to start high-quality chest compressions. This action helps maintain blood flow to vital organs such as the brain until normal heart rhythm is restored. Starting CPR with chest compressions before checking the airway and providing rescue breaths is crucial to improve outcomes. While establishing an airway and obtaining a crash cart are important steps in resuscitation, initiating chest compressions takes precedence to ensure oxygenated blood circulation. Starting with chest compressions applies to adults, children, and infants but not newborns.
3. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
4. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
- A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
- B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
- C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
- D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
5. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
- A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
- B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
- C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
- D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
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