NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?
- A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
- B. Try to place the client on his side
- C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
- D. Place pillows around the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.
2. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
- A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
- B. Edema of the ankles
- C. Gastric irritability
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?
- A. Slow pulse rate
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased systolic pressure
- D. Irregular WBC lab values
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weight gain due to fluid accumulation is associated with heart failure and congenital heart defects. When the heart is unable to circulate blood normally, the kidneys receive less blood, leading to reduced fluid filtration into the urine. The excess fluid accumulates in various body parts such as the lungs, liver, eyes, and sometimes in the legs. Slow pulse rate (Choice A) is less likely as infants with heart failure typically present with tachycardia due to the body compensating for decreased cardiac output. Decreased systolic pressure (Choice C) is also less likely as heart failure typically leads to increased blood pressure as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion. Irregular white blood cell (WBC) values (Choice D) are not directly associated with congenital heart defects unless there is an underlying infection or inflammatory process.
4. An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:
- A. Lack of thirst
- B. Pale skin
- C. Hypertension
- D. Swollen tongue
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.
5. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
- A. Anesthesia reaction
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
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