NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. A patient has a goal of eating at least 50% of each meal. The patient refuses to eat, so a nurse force-feeds the patient in order for them to reach their goal of eating at least 50% of the meal. The nurse has committed __________ against this patient.
- A. assault
- B. battery
- C. physical neglect
- D. emotional neglect
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'battery.' Battery occurs when there is unwanted physical contact or force applied to a person without their consent. In this scenario, force-feeding the patient against their will constitutes battery as the nurse is physically interfering with the patient's body without permission. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, which is not present in the situation described. Physical neglect refers to the failure to provide basic care needs, which is not the case here. Emotional neglect involves the failure to address emotional needs, which is also not applicable in this context.
2. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Contact precautions
- D. Universal precautions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.
3. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
- B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
- C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
- D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.
4. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?
- A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
- B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
- C. When dehydration is suspected.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.
5. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?
- A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
- B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
- C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
- D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access