Nursing Elites

1. Which contraindication should be assessed for prior to administering an immunization to a child?

• A. Mild cold symptoms
• B. Chronic asthma
• C. Depressed immune system
• D. Allergy to eggs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering immunizations to children, it is crucial to assess for contraindications. A depressed immune system, such as that seen in conditions like HIV or due to chemotherapy, is a significant contraindication. Immunizations may not be safe or effective in children with compromised immune systems. Mild cold symptoms, although not ideal, are not a contraindication for routine immunizations. Chronic asthma, while a consideration, is not a direct contraindication for routine immunizations. Allergy to eggs is a contraindication for specific vaccines, such as influenza vaccine that is grown in eggs, but it is not a contraindication for all immunizations.

2. A nurse caring for a client diagnosed with pertussis is ordered to maintain droplet precautions. Which of the following actions of the nurse upholds droplet precautions?

• A. Assign the client to stay in a negative-pressure room
• B. Use sterilized equipment when sharing between this client and another person with pertussis
• C. Wear a mask if coming within 3 feet of the client
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client requiring droplet precautions, it is essential for the nurse to wear a mask when within 3 feet of the client. This practice helps prevent the transmission of droplet particles that may be produced when the client coughs or sneezes. Assigning the client to a negative-pressure room is not typically necessary for droplet precautions unless specifically indicated for airborne precautions. Using sterilized equipment when sharing between clients with pertussis is important for infection control but does not directly relate to droplet precautions. Therefore, the correct action to uphold droplet precautions in this scenario is to wear a mask when coming within close proximity to the client.

3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

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