Nursing Elites

1. Your patient had a stroke, or CVA, five years ago. The resident still has right-sided weakness. You are ready to transfer the resident from the bed to the wheelchair. The wheelchair should be positioned at the _____________.

• A. head of the bed on the patient's right side
• B. head of the bed on the patient's left side
• C. bottom of the bed on the patient's right side
• D. bottom of the bed on the patient's left side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The wheelchair should be positioned at the head of the bed on the resident's left side. This positioning allows the resident to use their stronger left side to assist with the transfer, compensating for the right-sided weakness. Placing the wheelchair at the head of the bed on the patient's right side (Choice A) would not utilize the stronger left side, which is crucial for the transfer. Similarly, positioning the wheelchair at the bottom of the bed on either side (Choices C and D) would not facilitate optimal assistance from the resident's stronger side during the transfer process.

2. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?

• A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
• B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
• C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
• D. Order a high-protein diet for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.

3. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?

• A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
• B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
• C. Straight arms and legs
• D. Pale conjunctiva

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.

4. Over a patient's lifespan, how does the pulse rate change?

• A. starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages.
• B. starts out slower and increases as the patient ages.
• C. varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan.
• D. stays consistent from birth to death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the pulse rate starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. In infants, the normal pulse rate is around 140 beats per minute, which then falls to an average of 80 beats per minute in adults. As individuals age, their pulse rate tends to decrease due to changes in cardiovascular function. Choice B is incorrect as the pulse rate typically decreases with age, rather than increases. Choice C is incorrect as there is a general trend of decreasing pulse rate as individuals age, rather than a continuous variation. Choice D is incorrect as the pulse rate does change over a patient's lifespan, starting fast in infants and decreasing as they age.

5. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

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