NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
2. During a physical exam, a healthcare professional assisting a client suspected of having meningitis bends the client's leg at the hip to a 90-degree angle. When attempting to extend the leg at the knee, the client experiences severe pain. What type of test is being performed?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Romberg's sign
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Babinski's sign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional is performing Kernig's sign, a test for meningeal irritation often seen in meningitis cases. Kernig's sign involves bending the client's leg at a 90-degree angle at the hip and then attempting to extend the leg at the knee. Severe pain during this maneuver indicates a positive Kernig's sign, suggesting irritation of the meningeal membranes. Brudzinski's sign involves flexing the neck causing involuntary flexion of the hips and knees; Romberg's sign assesses balance and proprioception; Babinski's sign checks for abnormal reflexes in the foot.
3. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?
- A. The patient's urine is bright yellow
- B. The patient's stools are tan colored
- C. The patient has increased pain after eating
- D. The patient complains of chronic heartburn
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient's stools are tan colored. Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve in a patient with acute cholecystitis. This change in stool color is a critical sign that the healthcare provider needs to be informed about promptly. The other choices are less concerning and may be common symptoms in patients with acute cholecystitis, but tan-colored stools specifically indicate a potential serious complication that warrants immediate attention.
4. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
- A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
- B. "I can't see on my left side."?
- C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
- D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
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