Nursing Elites

1. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

2. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

3. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation?

• A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation.
• B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient.
• C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.
• D. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of an emergency where a pregnant woman is choking, chest thrusts are performed to clear the airway obstruction. This technique is used instead of abdominal thrusts to avoid potential harm to the fetus. While chest thrusts are not as effective as abdominal thrusts in clearing obstructions, they are the preferred method in this specific situation. Choices A and B are incorrect as chest thrusts are not typically performed during CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation or when assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. Choice D is incorrect as chest thrusts are indeed warranted when assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.

4. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?

• A. Whenever needed
• B. At bedtime
• C. During the night
• D. During the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.

5. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

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