NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?
- A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
- B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
- C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
- D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.
2. To properly read a meniscus,
- A. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level
- B. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container.
- C. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level.
- D. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To properly read a meniscus, it is essential to hold the measuring device at eye level to avoid parallax error. Reading the bottom of the curve of the liquid level is correct because the meniscus is the concave or convex curve at the liquid's surface. Choice B is incorrect because reading the top of the curve where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container can lead to inaccurate measurements. Choices C and D are incorrect as they suggest holding the device at table level, which can introduce parallax error and result in an incorrect reading.
3. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?
- A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
- B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
- C. Harbor microorganisms.
- D. Can scratch a patient.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.
4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?
- A. PT/INR
- B. CBC
- C. PTT
- D. WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.
5. Which of these is a correctly stated outcome goal written by the nurse?
- A. The client will walk 2 miles daily by March 19
- B. The client will understand how to give insulin by discharge
- C. The client will regain their former state of health by April 1
- D. The client achieve desired mobility by May 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Outcome goals should be SMART, i.e., Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, and Timely. Option A is the only outcome that has a specific behavior (walks daily), with measurable performance criteria (2 miles), and a time estimate for goal attainment (by March 19). Option B lacks specificity in terms of what 'understand how to give insulin' entails, and the timeline is vague ('by discharge'). Option C is not measurable or specific about what 'regain their former state of health' means. Option D does not provide a specific behavior or measurable criteria for 'desired mobility,' and the timeline is the only element that is time-bound.
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