NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?
- A. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why.
- B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope.
- C. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time when he isn't as anxious.
- D. Have the physician draw the blood.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.
2. What is the primary route of transmission of MRSA?
- A. Shared needles
- B. Hands of healthcare workers
- C. Items in the healthcare environment
- D. Blood transfusions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hands of healthcare workers.' MRSA is primarily transmitted via the unwashed hands of healthcare workers who can carry the Staphylococcus aureus bacterium from one patient to another. Shared needles, items in the healthcare environment, and blood transfusions are not the main routes of transmission for MRSA. Shared needles can transmit bloodborne pathogens, items in the healthcare environment can harbor bacteria but are not the primary mode for MRSA, and blood transfusions are not a common route for MRSA transmission.
3. Efforts by healthcare facilities to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include an awareness of which of the following?
- A. The CDC requires all states to report HAI rates from each hospital.
- B. Ensure that the restraints are tied to the side rails.
- C. The gastrointestinal tract is a common site for HAIs.
- D. Joint Commission considers death or serious injury from HAIs a sentinel event.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Efforts to reduce hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) involve being aware that the Joint Commission considers death or serious injury resulting from HAIs a sentinel event, which must be reported. While more than 20 states require reporting of HAI rates to the CDC, it is not a nationwide CDC requirement. The gastrointestinal tract is not a specific common site for HAIs; rather, bacteria are the primary cause. Ensuring restraints are properly secured is important for patient safety but not directly related to reducing HAIs.
4. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
- A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
- B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
- C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
- D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
5. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?
- A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
- B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
- C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
- D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.
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