NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
2. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
3. The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?
- A. Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the inhaler.
- B. Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth.
- C. Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose.
- D. Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure optimal benefits from a metered-dose inhaler, the client should be instructed to compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This technique facilitates the medication to reach deep into the lungs, allowing for an optimal bronchodilation effect. Option B is correct as it promotes the proper coordination of inhaler compression and inhalation, ensuring effective drug delivery. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not support deep lung penetration of the medication, which is essential for its effectiveness in treating respiratory conditions.
4. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
5. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to use a nicotine patch.
- B. Reassure the client that it is almost time for another break.
- C. Have the client leave the unit with another staff member.
- D. Review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks and provide concrete information about the schedule. Suggesting a nicotine patch (Option A) is not suitable as the client wants to smoke. Reassuring the client about another break (Option B) does not address the client's frustration and does not promote effective communication. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Option C) is not appropriate as it goes against unit rules and does not address the client's concerns. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client to provide clarity and address the client's frustration effectively.
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