psychosocial integrity nclex rn questions Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?

Correct answer: Low serum albumin level

Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency significantly lowers serum albumin levels. Albumin, derived from protein breakdown, is produced by the liver when adequate amino acids are available. Due to its long half-life, acute protein loss minimally affects serum albumin levels. In contrast, serum transferrin, with a shorter half-life of 8 to 10 days, decreases with acute protein deficiency and is not a reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Elevated hemoglobin levels may occur in conditions like dehydration or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, making it an unreliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. High cholesterol levels are not directly linked to protein malnutrition and do not serve as a reliable indicator. Therefore, the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition among the options provided is a low serum albumin level.

2. A female client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse to explain her friend's advice about drinking a glass of juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.' Cranberry juice maintains urinary tract health by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to cells within the bladder. This helps prevent UTIs. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because orange juice with vitamin C, apple juice for urine acidification, and grapefruit juice for antibiotic absorption do not have the same proven effectiveness in preventing UTIs as cranberry juice does.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

4. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A: Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.

Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.

5. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

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