Nursing Elites

1. A client who recently lost 50 pounds just received news that she is pregnant. A possible nursing diagnosis is:

• A. Actual Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
• B. Potential Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
• C. Actual Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
• D. Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's recent weight loss and subsequent pregnancy could lead to concerns about weight regain and body image. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is 'Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).' This diagnosis reflects the client's potential emotional response to the fear of losing the progress achieved through weight loss and dealing with changes in body image due to pregnancy. Options A and C imply that low self-esteem is already present, which is not supported by the information given. Option B is not as suitable as the client's self-esteem issues are more related to the fear of weight regain and pregnancy, making option D the best choice.

2. When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?

• A. situational
• B. maturational
• C. adventitious
• D. reactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.

3. A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?

• A. Hemiplegia
• B. Aphasia
• C. Nausea
• D. Bone pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.

4. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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