Nursing Elites

1. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

2. What is the role of an incident report in risk management?

• A. To provide liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.

3. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This disorder is caused by a genetic mutation affecting specific brain cells. Epilepsy presents with seizures, Parkinson's with tremors and rigidity, and multiple sclerosis with central nervous system issues. The specific description of writhing and twisting movements aligns with Huntington's chorea, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they describe different neurological disorders with distinct symptoms that do not match the writhing, twisting movements characteristic of Huntington's chorea.

4. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

• A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
• B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
• C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
• D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

5. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?

• A. gynecologist
• B. physiatrist
• C. urologist
• D. proctologist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.

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