Nursing Elites

1. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

2. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

• A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
• B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
• C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
• D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

3. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

• A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
• B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
• C. age
• D. requirement of nursing and social work support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

4. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

• A. diced fruit
• B. apple juice with a liquid thickener
• C. Jell-O™
• D. toast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O™, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.

5. An LPN is caring for a primarily bedridden client. Which finding should be of least concern?

• A. swollen feet
• B. brown discoloration above the ankles
• C. leg pain
• D. capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe. A capillary refill time longer than three seconds may indicate inadequate blood flow. Swollen feet, brown discoloration above the ankles, and leg pain are all signs of venous insufficiency to the lower extremities. These findings can suggest circulation issues and require further assessment and intervention. Therefore, they should be of more concern compared to the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe, which is within the normal range of 2-3 seconds.

Similar Questions