Nursing Elites

1. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

• A. There is no rash.
• B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
• C. There is no fever.
• D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The disorder is uncommon in adults.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, is more common in children than in adults. It typically presents with a rash on the face that gives a 'slapped cheek' or 'slapped face' appearance. Fever may be present, and there is a characteristic rash associated with the condition. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is incorrect, making it the correct answer. The other statements are true regarding erythema infectiosum, making them incorrect choices. There is indeed a rash associated with erythema infectiosum, which can be a prominent feature. Fever may also be present in individuals with this condition. Additionally, the 'slapped face' appearance is a classic characteristic of erythema infectiosum.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

Similar Questions