Nursing Elites

1. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.

2. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

3. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

4. The mother of a child who weighs 45 lb asks a nurse about car safety seats. The nurse tells the mother to place the child in which car safety seat?

• A. Car safety seat in the back seat in a face-forward position
• B. Booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child
• C. Booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat
• D. Car safety seat in a face-forward position in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in a booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child. A child needs to remain in a car safety seat until he or she weighs 40 lb. Once the child has outgrown the car safety seat, a booster seat is used. Booster seats are designed to raise the child high enough so that the restraining straps are correctly positioned over the child's chest and pelvis, providing optimal safety. Placing a child in a booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat due to potential airbag-related injuries. Additionally, car safety seats are used for children weighing less than 40 lb and are placed in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing position for maximum protection.

5. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

Similar Questions