Nursing Elites

1. Which of these would be the most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication?

• A. "Heparin refused during shift. Risks reviewed."?
• B. "The client refused the heparin injection when I tried to administer it. She yelled at me, saying, 'I do not want that injection right now!' and told me to leave the room. I explained the risks of not taking the medication. She seemed very annoyed that I tried to give it at that time. I will attempt again later in my shift."?
• C. "Subcutaneous Heparin injection was attempted to be given to the client per the physician's order. Client refused, stating, 'I do not want that injection.' Potential risks for refusing the medication were reviewed with the client, and the client verbalized understanding."?
• D. "Ct stated she did not want the SQ heparin inj at this time. Risks of not taking this med were reviewed with the ct, and the ct verbalized understanding."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication should include details such as the medication, the client's statement of refusal, and the review of potential risks. Choice C accurately captures all these essential elements, making it the correct answer. Choice A lacks details about the client's refusal and the review of risks. Choice B includes unnecessary emotional descriptions and a plan of action that might not be appropriate. Choice D uses abbreviations that may not be universally understood, lacks proper punctuation, and also does not provide a detailed account of the refusal and the review of risks.

2. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.

3. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Tape the wedding band in place
• B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
• C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
• D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.

4. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

• A. to assess renal function
• B. to determine therapeutic range
• C. to measure trough levels
• D. to evaluate antibiotic resistance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

5. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

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