Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

2. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

3. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

• A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
• B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
• C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
• D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

4. Which of the following statements by a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) indicates adequate understanding?

• A. "I should eat right before bedtime."?
• B. "I should eat large meals."?
• C. "I should sit up after eating."?
• D. "I should lie flat after eating."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement for a client with GERD is, 'I should sit up after eating.' This helps prevent reflux by keeping the stomach contents down. Choice A is incorrect as eating right before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of reflux during the night. Choice B is incorrect because consuming large meals can lead to increased stomach pressure and worsen reflux symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because lying flat after eating can promote reflux due to gravity assisting the flow of stomach contents into the esophagus, worsening GERD.

5. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?

• A. Advil
• B. Aleve
• C. Toradol
• D. Bextra

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.

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