Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

3. A nurse is planning the assignments for the shift. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?

• A. Monitoring the vital signs for a client who needs a blood transfusion
• B. Performing hygiene for a client with diarrhea on whom contact precautions have been imposed
• C. Performing a dressing change on a client with a draining abdominal wound that requires frequent dressing changes
• D. Ambulating a client with angina who needs to be ambulated for the first time since admission

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assigning tasks, a nurse should consider the job description of the nursing assistant, their clinical competence, and state law. Monitoring vital signs for a client needing a blood transfusion, performing a dressing change on a client with a draining wound, and ambulating a client with angina are tasks that require a licensed nurse's skill. On the other hand, providing hygiene care for a client with diarrhea under contact precautions is a task suitable for a nursing assistant. Nursing assistants are trained to provide hygiene care effectively and manage clients under specific precautions, making this task appropriate for them.

4. Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:

• A. all drug-resistant bacteria.
• B. microorganisms that are critical.
• C. transmission of microorganisms.
• D. overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All nurses should be concerned with preventing the transmission of microorganisms to themselves and others. A primary way to achieve this is through asepsis. Nursing practice emphasizes providing a safe environment to shield clients, family, and healthcare providers from infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While drug-resistant bacteria, critical microorganisms, and overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs are important, nurses' primary focus should be on preventing microorganism transmission to ensure safety and well-being.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

Similar Questions