NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?
- A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
- B. posterior cord syndrome
- C. central cord syndrome
- D. cauda equina syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.
2. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?
- A. involving the client in treatment and decision-making
- B. standing up for what is right for the client
- C. sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information
- D. encouraging the client to advocate for themselves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.
3. A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?
- A. positive
- B. false positive
- C. negative
- D. false negative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.
4. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.
5. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Contact the nursing supervisor.
- B. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications.
- C. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed.
- D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.
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