which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord is a result of damage to one half of the spinal cord
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. Why is padding on a restraint helpful?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Padding on a restraint helps distribute pressure to prevent bony prominences from bearing excessive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints. This is crucial to avoid tissue damage caused by ischemia. The correct answer focuses on the physiological benefit of padding in reducing pressure on vulnerable areas to prevent harm. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose of padding is not emotional comfort but preventing physical harm. Choice C is incorrect as while padding can indirectly help prevent infection and wounds by reducing pressure, its primary function is pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as the main purpose of padding is not to keep the restraints in place but to protect the client's skin and tissues from pressure-related injuries.

3. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.

4. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal distress is indicated, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation and blood flow to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve blood flow and oxygen delivery, administering oxygen increases oxygenation levels, and turning the mother can help optimize fetal oxygenation. Decreasing maternal fluids would negatively impact blood volume and can worsen fetal distress, making it the exception among the listed interventions. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids should not be performed when fetal distress is present.

5. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

Similar Questions

During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
A nurse is planning task assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?
What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?
Upon first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue. Her behavior is an example of:
Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses