Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

3. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?

• A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
• B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
• C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
• D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.

4. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

5. A nurse and a nursing assistant enter a client's room to provide care and find the client lying on the floor. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete an incident report
• B. Check the client's level of consciousness and vital signs
• C. Contact the unit secretary on the intercom and ask that the client's health care provider be called
• D. Ask the nursing assistant to assist in getting the client back to bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client sustains a fall, the nurse must first assess the client. The nurse should check the client's level of consciousness and vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and provide appropriate care promptly. This immediate assessment is crucial in ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed. Asking the nursing assistant to complete an incident report (choice A) is not the priority as the client's condition needs immediate attention. Contacting the unit secretary to call the client's health care provider (choice C) can be done after the initial assessment has been completed. Asking the nursing assistant to assist in getting the client back to bed (choice D) should only be considered after ensuring the client is stable and safe to move.

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