NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?
- A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
- B. posterior cord syndrome
- C. central cord syndrome
- D. cauda equina syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.
2. When working with elderly clients, the healthcare provider should keep in mind that falls are most likely to happen to the elderly who are:
- A. in their 80s.
- B. living at home.
- C. hospitalized.
- D. living on only Social Security income.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'hospitalized.' Elderly individuals are at a higher risk of falls, especially when they are in new environments like hospitals due to unfamiliarity with the surroundings, medications, and potential mobility challenges. Being in a hospital can disrupt their usual routines and increase the risk of falls. Choice A ('in their 80s') is not as directly related to the increased risk of falls in a hospital environment. Choice B ('living at home') is a common setting for the elderly but does not address the specific risk associated with being hospitalized. Choice D ('living on only Social Security income') is unrelated to the risk of falls based on the environment.
3. A small amount of bubbling is seen in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. What should the nurse do?
- A. Consider it a normal finding.
- B. Check the system for leaks.
- C. Clamp the chest tube.
- D. Change the drainage system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A small amount of bubbling is a normal finding in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. It is only a problem to find continuous, excessive bubbling in the water seal, which indicates a leak. Checking the system for leaks would be appropriate if there is continuous, excessive bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or changing the drainage system is not necessary in response to a small amount of bubbling during a cough, as this is considered a normal finding.
4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?
- A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
- B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
- C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.
5. When a client's postoperative pain seems to be getting worse due to grief over the recent death of their spouse, what should the nurse consider?
- A. calling the physician for an increased dosage of pain medication
- B. calling the physician for a sedative
- C. referring the client for a psychiatric consult
- D. developing interventions for grief and loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is developing interventions for grief and loss. In this scenario, the client's pain is not solely sensory but also affective due to grieving over the death of their spouse. It is essential to address the emotional component of pain by providing support and interventions for grief and loss. Referring the client for a psychiatric consult may not be necessary as grieving is a normal response to such a significant loss. Calling the physician for an increased dosage of pain medication or a sedative solely focuses on the sensory aspect of pain and does not address the underlying emotional distress.
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