NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. Which of the following represents a normal serum potassium level?
- A. 1.5 mEq/L
- B. 3.0 mEq/L
- C. 4.0 mEq/L
- D. 6.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 4.0 mEq/L. Normal serum potassium levels typically range from 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Choice A (1.5 mEq/L) is below the normal range, Choice B (3.0 mEq/L) is also below the normal range, and Choice D (6.0 mEq/L) is above the normal range. Therefore, the only option within the normal range is Choice C (4.0 mEq/L).
2. Which statement about clinical pathways is inaccurate?
- A. They require daily updates.
- B. They illustrate the expected client response to their diagnosis.
- C. The objective is improvement or discharge from the facility.
- D. They are evidence-based.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that clinical pathways do not necessarily require daily updates. Clinical pathways can be customized to be updated daily, weekly, or at other intervals based on patient needs and facility protocols. Choice A is inaccurate as daily updates are not always mandatory for clinical pathways. Choices B, C, and D are accurate features of clinical pathways: they depict the expected client response to the diagnosis, aim for improvement or discharge, and are grounded in evidence-based practices to ensure optimal care.
3. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.
4. A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Asking the client to wiggle their toes
- B. Medicating the client with the prescribed analgesic
- C. Realigning the client
- D. Removing some of the traction weights
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.
5. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?
- A. Do nothing to the client.
- B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
- C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
- D. Help the client with better posture.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.
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