NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)
- A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
- B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
- C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
- D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.
2. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:
- A. Peanuts, dates, raisins
- B. Figs, chocolate, eggplant
- C. Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
- D. Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.
3. The nurse is assessing the newborn's respirations. Which of these findings would indicate a need for follow-up and further intervention?
- A. irregular respirations
- B. abdominal respirations
- C. shallow respirations
- D. 70 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ideal respiratory rate in a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea and may require intervention. Therefore, a rate of 70 breaths per minute would necessitate follow-up and further intervention. Irregular, abdominal, and shallow respirations are common in newborns and may not necessarily indicate the need for immediate follow-up or intervention.
4. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?
- A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
- B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
- C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
- D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.
5. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?
- A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
- B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
- C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
- D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.
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