NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?
- A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
- B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
- C. acting out and making up
- D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.
2. When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, what should the nurse do?
- A. Help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
- B. Ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
- C. Instruct the client to practice relaxation techniques.
- D. Confront the client's resistive behavior.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To assist a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to identify triggers or events that lead to increased anxiety. This approach helps the client recognize causal factors contributing to their anxiety, promoting self-awareness and understanding. Choice A is incorrect because it should focus on triggers rather than specific behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes managing anxiety through relaxation techniques rather than understanding its roots. Choice D is incorrect as it addresses resistive behavior rather than exploring the causes of anxiety.
3. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
4. A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:
- A. touching the client to help him return to reality
- B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
- C. asking the client to describe what is happening
- D. telling the client there are no voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.
5. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:
- A. Nasal congestion
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Muscle tetany
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.
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