which of the following clients require airborne precautions
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

2. When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%, what should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is experiencing a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. Ensuring a clear airway is essential to maintain oxygenation during a seizure episode. Administering oxygen may be necessary but is secondary to ensuring a patent airway. Suctioning the client should only be done if there is an airway obstruction. Checking for breathing is important, but opening the airway takes precedence to support ventilation and oxygenation.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

5. Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction, however, is not a primary concern when treating pain in terminally ill clients. Terminally ill patients are usually not at risk of developing addiction to opioids due to their short life expectancy and the focus on pain management rather than the potential for addiction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'addiction.' Choices A, B, and C are essential considerations when managing clients on opioids for pain control.

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