NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
- A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
- B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
- C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
- D. a client diagnosed with AIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.
2. As part of the teaching plan for a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the nurse should include that carbohydrate needs might increase when:
- A. an infection is present.
- B. there is an emotional upset.
- C. a large meal is eaten.
- D. active exercise is performed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During active exercise, insulin sensitivity increases, leading to lower blood glucose levels. To balance the effect of increased insulin sensitivity, additional carbohydrates might be needed. The other choices are incorrect because: A) an infection typically raises blood glucose levels rather than increasing the need for carbohydrates; B) emotional upset can impact blood glucose but does not directly affect carbohydrate needs; C) while a large meal can raise blood glucose levels, it does not necessarily mean an increase in carbohydrate needs.
3. The LPN is caring for a client with an NG tube, and the RN administers evening medications through the NG tube. The client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?
- A. You can lie down in 1 hour.
- B. You can lie down in 30 minutes if your NG residual is below 50 mL.
- C. You can lie down in about 30 minutes.
- D. Yes, feel free to lie down.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After administering medication through an NG tube, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to advise the client to lie down in 1 hour. Choice B is incorrect because waiting only 30 minutes may not provide sufficient time for the medications to be fully absorbed, as the recommended time is 30 minutes. Choice C is misleading as it incorrectly suggests that lying down in about 30 minutes is acceptable, which could compromise medication effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide accurate information regarding the appropriate timing for lying down after NG tube medication administration, potentially leading to decreased medication absorption.
4. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?
- A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
- B. posterior cord syndrome
- C. central cord syndrome
- D. cauda equina syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.
5. During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
- A. brain
- B. bone
- C. liver
- D. mediastinum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.
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