which assignment should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. Which task should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A licensed practical nurse should not initiate a blood transfusion. LPNs can assist with transfusions and verify ID numbers but should not be assigned to initiate the procedure. Inserting Foley catheters, discontinuing nasogastric tubes, and obtaining sputum specimens are within the scope of practice for LPNs. Therefore, options A, B, and C are tasks that LPNs can perform, making them incorrect choices.

2. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.

3. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

4. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

5. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

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