Nursing Elites

1. Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of benevolence?

• A. The nurse administers an immunization to a child even though it may cause discomfort
• B. The nurse follows a plan of care designed to relieve pain in a client with cancer
• C. The nurse provides equal amounts of care to all assigned clients on the basis of illness acuity
• D. The nurse upholds a client's decision to refuse chemotherapy for lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Benevolence is taking action to help others. In this scenario, administering an immunization to a child, even though it may cause discomfort, aligns with the principle of benevolence as the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person's independence, and respecting autonomy means agreeing to respect an individual's right to determine their course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including the fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the ethical principle of beneficence rather than benevolence, which focuses on doing good for others without an expectation of something in return. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly align with the principle of benevolence.

2. The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by performing all of the following activities except:

• A. encouraging political involvement by nurses with their legislators.
• B. acting as a first-aid provider for a children's athletic team.
• C. precepting newly licensed nurses in the work situation.
• D. encouraging as many persons to become nurses as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by encouraging appropriate persons to become nurses, by being a positive role model and mentor, and by communicating the needs of nurses in the most professional manner possible to those making the laws. Encouraging as many persons as possible to become nurses may not align with the advocacy role, as the focus should be on quality rather than quantity. Choices A, B, and C are activities that align with being an advocate for the nursing profession by promoting political involvement, providing first aid, and precepting newly licensed nurses, respectively.

3. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills.
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces.
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns.
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

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