Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?

• A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
• B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
• C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
• D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.

2. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily dietary protein intake.
• B. Reposition the patient every 4 hours.
• C. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress.
• D. Perform passive range of motion daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown, especially with significant edema and ascites. Adequate dietary protein intake is essential in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure and prevent malnutrition. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours alone may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown, especially in areas prone to pressure ulcers. Performing passive range of motion exercises is important for maintaining joint mobility but does not directly address the risk of skin breakdown associated with prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas.

3. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?

• A. Reports of frothy stools and diarrhea
• B. Reports of foul-smelling ribbon stools
• C. Reports of profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting
• D. Reports of diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.

4. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

5. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

• A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
• D. Verapamil (Calan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.

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