Nursing Elites

1. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment finding should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider?

• A. Patient is claustrophobic.
• B. Patient is allergic to shellfish.
• C. Patient recently used a bronchodilator inhaler.
• D. Patient is not able to remove a wedding band.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is allergic to shellfish. This is crucial because the contrast media used in CT scans is iodine-based, and individuals with iodine allergies, such as those allergic to shellfish, are at risk of adverse reactions. It is important to identify and address this allergy to prevent potential complications. The other options do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of the CT scan with contrast media. Claustrophobia can be managed with patient support, the recent use of a bronchodilator inhaler does not typically affect the CT procedure, and not being able to remove a wedding band is not a critical concern for the scan itself.

2. A client using an intraaural hearing aid experiences whistling after placement. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Try to reposition the hearing aid
• B. Change the batteries
• C. Remove the device and have it cleaned
• D. Notify the physician that the hearing aid is not working

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An intraaural hearing aid, also known as an in-the-ear hearing aid, is placed in the ear canal. Whistling after placement indicates improper positioning of the device. The correct action for the nurse is to try repositioning the hearing aid to eliminate the whistling. Changing the batteries is not necessary for addressing whistling. Removing the device to clean it is not the immediate action needed for whistling. Notifying the physician is premature without attempting to reposition the hearing aid first.

3. A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?

• A. Odor
• B. Nausea
• C. Malaise
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.

4. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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