Nursing Elites

1. A patient has a history of photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs is associated with photosensitive reactions? Select one that doesn't apply

• A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
• B. Sulfonamide
• C. Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
• D. Nitro-Dur patch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitro-Dur patch is not associated with photosensitive reactions. It is used to prevent chest pain or angina, and common side effects include headache, lightheadedness, nausea, and flushing. Choices A, B, and C are known to cause photosensitive reactions. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), Sulfonamides, and Norfloxacin (Noroxin) are drugs that are commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions. Patients taking these medications should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and use sun protection to prevent skin reactions.

2. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97%
• B. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95%
• C. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98%
• D. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.

3. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

4. The nurse has been assigned to care for a neonate just delivered who has gastroschisis. Which concern should the nurse address in the client's plan of care?

• A. Infection.
• B. Poor body image.
• C. Decreased urinary elimination.
• D. Cracking oral mucous membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a neonate with gastroschisis, the bowel herniates through a defect in the abdominal wall without a covering membrane, which puts the neonate at high risk of infection. Immediate surgical repair is necessary due to the vulnerability of the exposed bowel to infection. Therefore, the most critical concern for the nurse to address in the plan of care of a neonate with gastroschisis is preventing infection. Poor body image is not a priority in neonatal care as neonates do not have body image concerns. Decreased urinary elimination is not typically a direct consequence of gastroschisis as it primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system. Cracking oral mucous membranes are not relevant to gastroschisis as it involves the lower gastrointestinal system, not the oral cavity.

5. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?

• A. Left-sided pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Right-sided pneumothorax

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.

Similar Questions