Nursing Elites

1. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?

• A. Left-sided pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Right-sided pneumothorax

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.

2. When caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction, which of the following is indicative of an early-phase reaction?

• A. Rapid bronchospasms
• B. Inflammatory epithelial lesions
• C. Increased secretions
• D. Increased mucosal edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rapid bronchospasms are a symptom of an early-phase reaction in an asthmatic patient. During the early phase, bronchospasms occur due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Inflammatory epithelial lesions, increased secretions, and increased mucosal edema are typically seen in late-phase reactions as part of the inflammatory response that occurs later. Therefore, rapid bronchospasms are most indicative of an early-phase reaction.

3. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
• B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
• C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
• D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.' An increased respiratory rate is a crucial sign of respiratory distress in patients with COPD, necessitating immediate interventions like oxygen therapy or medications. The other options are common chronic changes seen in COPD patients. Option B, the 'Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1,' is related to the barrel chest commonly seen in COPD due to hyperinflation. Option C, 'Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally,' is expected in COPD due to air trapping. Option D, 'Hyperresonance to percussion is present,' is typical in COPD patients with increased lung volume and air trapping.

4. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

Similar Questions