Nursing Elites

1. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

• A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
• B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
• C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
• D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

2. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

4. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?

• A. Increased serum albumin level
• B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
• C. Improved alertness and orientation
• D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.

5. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

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