Nursing Elites

1. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

• A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
• B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
• C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
• D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

2. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should?

• A. place the patient on NPO status.
• B. assist the patient to lie flat in bed.
• C. ask the patient to empty the bladder.
• D. position the patient on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should ask the patient to empty the bladder. This is important to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient should be positioned in Fowler's position to facilitate the procedure, not lie flat in bed, which can compromise breathing. Placing the patient on NPO status is unnecessary as sedation is not typically required for paracentesis. Positioning the patient on the right side is not a standard preparatory measure for paracentesis.

3. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

• A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
• B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
• C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
• D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

• A. Bulging anterior fontanel
• B. Repeated vomiting
• C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
• D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

5. A nurse and client are discussing the client's progress toward understanding his behavior under stress. This is typical of which phase in the therapeutic relationship?

• A. Pre-interaction
• B. Orientation
• C. Working
• D. Termination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the working phase. During this phase, the nurse and client actively work together to explore alternative behaviors and techniques. Discussions in this phase focus on understanding the underlying meaning behind the behavior and implementing strategies for change. Pre-interaction (choice A) refers to the phase before the nurse and client first meet and establish a relationship. The orientation phase (choice B) involves introductions, setting goals, and establishing boundaries. Termination (choice D) is the phase where the therapeutic relationship concludes, and closure is achieved.

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