Nursing Elites

1. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

• A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
• B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
• C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
• D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Turn the client on his side
• B. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves
• C. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it
• D. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.

3. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Fungus
• D. Noninfectious agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.

4. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is

• A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
• B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
• C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
• D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.

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