Nursing Elites

1. A client had a closed reduction of a fractured right wrist followed by the application of a fiberglass cast 12 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Capillary refill of fingers on right hand is 3 seconds
• B. Skin warm to touch and normally colored
• C. Client reports prickling sensation in the right hand
• D. Slight swelling of fingers of right hand

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prickling sensation in the right hand is indicative of compartment syndrome, a serious condition that can lead to tissue damage and impaired circulation. Immediate attention is required to prevent complications. Capillary refill of 3 seconds, warm and normally colored skin, and slight swelling of fingers are expected findings after a closed reduction and casting. These findings do not typically indicate a critical issue and can be managed with routine monitoring.

2. Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

• A. Teach about symptoms of variceal bleeding
• B. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing
• C. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake
• D. Review the patient's current medication list

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for a patient diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) would be to review the patient's current medication list. This is important because certain medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be identified and possibly eliminated. Teaching about symptoms of variceal bleeding is not necessary as variceal bleeding is not a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD. Drawing blood for hepatitis serology testing is not indicated as NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis. Discussing the need to increase caloric intake is also not appropriate since weight loss is usually recommended in the management of NAFLD.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Turn the client on his side
• B. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves
• C. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it
• D. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for:

• A. Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis
• B. Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy
• C. Tumor, Node Involvement, Metastasis
• D. Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The TNM staging system is a classification system for determining the size and extent of cancerous tissue. The TNM system helps providers to identify the most accurate forms of treatment. The T stands for tumor, the N stands for node involvement, and the M stands for metastasis. Choice A, 'Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it does not include the node involvement component. Choice B, 'Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy,' is incorrect as it erroneously includes the treatment approach 'Mastectomy' instead of 'Metastasis.' Choice D, 'Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it includes 'Therapy' instead of the correct component 'Node Involvement.'

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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