Nursing Elites

1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

2. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient in the rehab unit during shift change. The patient has sustained a TBI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristic of a neurological disturbance?

• A. LOC (level of consciousness)
• B. Short-term memory
• C. Babinski sign
• D. Clonus sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Level of consciousness (LOC) is the most crucial indicator of impaired neurological function. Changes in LOC can signify various neurological conditions, including traumatic brain injury. Short-term memory, while important, is not the most distinguishing characteristic of neurological disturbances. Babinski and Clonus signs are specific neurological tests that can provide information about upper motor neuron lesions but are not as generalizable as changes in LOC for assessing overall neurological status.

4. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

• A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
• B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
• C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
• D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

5. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's blood pressure is 88/50?

• A. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
• B. Enalapril (Vasotec)
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril (Vasotec) is the correct answer. It is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can further lower blood pressure. Given that the client's blood pressure is already low at 88/50, administering Enalapril could exacerbate hypotension and compromise perfusion to vital organs. Rosuvastatin (Crestor), Digoxin (Lanoxin), and Clopidogrel (Plavix) are not contraindicated in the context of low blood pressure and may be administered safely.

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