NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
- A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
- B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
- C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
- D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (Choice A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making Choice D incorrect.
3. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
- A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
- B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
- C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
- D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
4. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
- A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
- B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
- C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
- D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.
5. When giving an intramuscular injection to an infant, which of the following sites is preferred?
- A. Ventrogluteal region
- B. Deltoid
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Dorsogluteal region
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Vastus lateralis when giving an intramuscular injection to an infant. The Vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is the preferred site for infants as it has a larger muscle mass and is well-developed, making it suitable for injections. The Ventrogluteal region and Dorsogluteal region are not recommended for infants due to their smaller muscle mass and potential risk of damaging nearby structures. The Deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not infants.
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