NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?
- A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
- B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
- C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
- D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.
3. During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Diazoxide
- C. Procardia
- D. Mannitol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.
4. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:
- A. tachycardia and hyperthermia.
- B. bradycardia and hypothermia.
- C. a large goiter.
- D. a calm, quiet client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.
5. During the admission assessment for a client undergoing breast augmentation, which information should the nurse prioritize reporting to the surgeon before surgery?
- A. The client is concerned about who will care for her two children while she recovers.
- B. The client has a history of postoperative dehiscence after a previous C-section.
- C. The client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior.
- D. The client's concerns over pain control postoperatively.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to report to the surgeon before surgery is the client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior. This information is crucial as the client may be pregnant, and a pregnancy test will need to be completed before administering any anesthetic agents. Reporting this detail ensures patient safety and prevents potential risks associated with anesthesia. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over the need to rule out pregnancy before surgery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access