what hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

2. How can light therapy be effective?

A. overcoming weight problems.
B. helping with allergies.
C. use in alternative medical treatments.
D. working with sleep patterns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Light therapy can be effective in treating problems associated with sleep patterns, stress, moods, jaundice in newborns, and seasonal affective disorders. While light therapy is not typically used for overcoming weight problems or helping with allergies, it is specifically known for its benefits in regulating sleep patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is 'working with sleep patterns.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as light therapy is not commonly utilized for overcoming weight problems, helping with allergies, or as a general alternative medical treatment.

3. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?

A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.

4. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

5. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:

A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
B. red blood cells are affected first.
C. folic acid levels are normal.
D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.