NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:
- A. Peanuts, dates, raisins
- B. Figs, chocolate, eggplant
- C. Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
- D. Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.
3. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?
- A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
- B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
- C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
- D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.
4. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Gently rub the injection site after removing the needle
- B. Have the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes
- C. Remove the needle and engage the needle safety device
- D. Apply heat to the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.
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