NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. While Fluorouracil (5FUĀ®) is being infused, a client complains of burning at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Aspirate the IV site for blood return.
- B. Slow the infusion.
- C. Inspect the IV site.
- D. Stop the infusion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to inspect the IV site. This is important to assess for any signs of infiltration or extravasation, which could be causing the burning sensation. Aspirating the IV site for blood return (Choice A) may not be the initial priority as it does not directly address the client's complaint of burning. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) may help alleviate discomfort but should not be done before inspecting the site. Stopping the infusion (Choice D) may be necessary, but inspecting the site should come first to determine the appropriate course of action.
3. A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:
- A. Plantar fasciitis.
- B. Hallux valgus.
- C. Hammertoe.
- D. Morton's neuroma.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Morton's neuroma. Morton's neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion, involving a bony bump at the base of the big toe. Hammertoe is a condition where one toe is bent abnormally at the middle joint, resembling a hammer. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not by a mass causing difficulty walking. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe a mass in the foot leading to difficulty walking, unlike Morton's neuroma.
4. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. homeostasis
- C. respiratory acidosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within the normal range, indicating a state of balance and homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), the PCO2 is normal (35-45 mmHg), and the HCO3 level is also normal (22-26 mEq/L). Choice A, 'metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect because the pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are not indicative of metabolic alkalosis. Choice C, 'respiratory acidosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 values are not elevated. Choice D, 'respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 levels are not decreased. Therefore, the ABG values provided do not correspond to any acid-base disturbance, confirming that the patient is in a state of homeostasis.
5. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?
- A. Stage I pressure ulcer
- B. Stage II pressure ulcer
- C. Stage III pressure ulcer
- D. Stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access