NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?
- A. Aspirate to check placement
- B. Ensure the client voids
- C. Irrigate the catheter to maintain patency
- D. Warm the fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (Choice A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (Choice B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (Choice C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis. Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.
3. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?
- A. A home health patient reports, "I am starting to have a breakdown of my heels."?
- B. A patient that received an upper extremity cast yesterday reports, "I can't feel my fingers in my right hand today."?
- C. A young female reports, 'I think I sprained my ankle about 2 weeks ago.'
- D. A middle-aged patient reports, 'My knee is still hurting from the TKR.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.
4. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?
- A. influenza virus
- B. herpes virus
- C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.
5. In a client with asthma who develops respiratory acidosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
- A. normal
- B. elevated
- C. low
- D. unrelated to the pH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the serum potassium level is expected to be elevated. This occurs because potassium shifts from cells into the bloodstream as a compensatory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A normal potassium level is not expected in respiratory acidosis. A low potassium level is more commonly associated with alkalosis, not acidosis. The potassium level is indeed related to pH changes in respiratory acidosis, leading to the expected elevation.
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