Nursing Elites

1. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:

• A. help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
• B. stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.
• C. help the client's circadian rhythm.
• D. alert the hypothalamus in the brain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.

2. In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order

• A. A, D, B, C
• B. C, B, D, A
• C. D, C, B, A
• D. B, C, A, D

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.

3. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information
• B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client
• C. Check the physician's progress notes to see if understanding has been documented
• D. Check with the client's family to see if they understand the procedure fully

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

4. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

• A. HIV
• B. AIDS
• C. candida
• D. herpes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

5. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.

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