Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Hepatitis testing
• B. Tuberculosis screening
• C. Contraceptive teaching
• D. Colonoscopy information

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent in many parts of Asia, including Vietnam, and the incidence of TB is higher in immigrants from Vietnam compared to the general U.S. population. Conducting tuberculosis screening is crucial to identify and address any cases promptly, especially in a community with recent immigrants from Vietnam. While teaching about contraceptive use, providing colonoscopy information, and testing for hepatitis may be relevant for certain individuals in the community, they are not as universally important as tuberculosis screening due to the increased risk of TB among Vietnamese immigrants.

2. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
• B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
• C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
• D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.

3. What nursing intervention demonstrates that the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions?

• A. The nurse uses a pen pad to communicate with the patient
• B. The nurse provides oral care every 2 hours
• C. The nurse listens for bowel sounds every 4 hours
• D. The nurse suctions as needed and elevates the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction as needed and elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is crucial for managing Ineffective Airway Clearance, which is the priority nursing diagnosis in oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions. Suctioning helps clear secretions that may obstruct the airway, while elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal respiratory function. Providing oral care every 2 hours may be important for overall oral health but is not directly related to addressing the priority diagnosis. Listening for bowel sounds every 4 hours is more relevant to gastrointestinal assessment and not specific to managing airway clearance issues in oral cancer patients.

4. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
• B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
• C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
• D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.

5. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

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