NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Place the patient in a supine position
- B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
- D. Start an IV in the other arm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.
2. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess?
- A. Teach the patient to avoid using over-the-counter expectorants.
- B. Assist the patient with chest physiotherapy and postural drainage.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately regarding any bloody or foul-smelling sputum.
- D. Teach about the necessity of prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess, the priority intervention is to educate them about the importance of prolonged antibiotic therapy post-hospital discharge. Long-term antibiotic treatment is crucial for eradicating the infecting organisms in a lung abscess. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not recommended for lung abscess as they can potentially spread the infection. While foul-smelling and bloody sputum are common in lung abscess, immediate notification to the healthcare provider is essential. Avoiding the use of over-the-counter expectorants is not necessary, as expectorants can be used to facilitate coughing and clearing of secretions in this condition.
3. Using the illustrated technique, the healthcare provider is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Hyperresonance
- B. Tripod positioning
- C. Accessory muscle use
- D. Reduced chest expansion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest expansion would be noted on palpation of a patient's chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion, not palpation. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection, not palpation.
4. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
5. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
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