Nursing Elites

1. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

2. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

• A. Dry dressing
• B. Transparent dressing
• C. Composite dressing
• D. Wet to dry dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

3. During an admission assessment on a 2-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, the nurse notes that which characteristic is most commonly associated with this syndrome?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Generalized edema
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Frank, bright red blood in the urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome in children is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. The most common manifestation is generalized edema due to protein loss in the urine, leading to decreased plasma oncotic pressure. This results in fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypertension is not a typical feature of nephrotic syndrome in children. Increased urinary output is not a common finding; instead, children with nephrotic syndrome often have decreased urine output due to decreased renal perfusion. The presence of frank, bright red blood in the urine is not a typical characteristic of nephrotic syndrome but may indicate a different renal condition such as glomerulonephritis.

4. A patient is deciding whether they should take the live influenza vaccine (nasal spray) or the inactivated influenza vaccine (shot). The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would NOT contraindicate the nasal (live vaccine) route of administration?

• A. The patient takes long-term corticosteroids
• B. The patient is not feeling well today
• C. The patient is 55 years old
• D. The patient has young children

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has young children. Having young children is not a contraindication for the live influenza vaccine unless the children are immunocompromised, which is not mentioned. Choice A, the patient taking long-term corticosteroids, is a contraindication for the live vaccine due to potential immunosuppression. Choice B, the patient not feeling well today, is a general precaution for vaccination and not a contraindication specific to the live influenza vaccine. Choice C, the patient being 55 years old, is not a contraindication for the live vaccine unless there are other specific medical conditions present.

5. Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. 23 year-old in traction for fractured femur
• B. 72 year-old with peripheral vascular disease, who is unable to walk without assistance
• C. 75 year-old with left sided paresthesia and is incontinent of urine and stool
• D. 30 year-old who is comatose following a ruptured aneurysm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Risk factors for pressure ulcers include: immobility, absence of sensation, decreased LOC, poor nutrition and hydration, skin moisture, incontinence, increased age, decreased immune response. This client has the greatest number of risk factors.

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