Nursing Elites

1. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Administer PRN morphine.
• C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
• D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.

Correct answer: Auscultate breath sounds.

Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.

2. The nurse is assigned to care for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. Select the prescriptions that the nurse anticipates will be prescribed. Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Initiate an IV line.
• B. Maintain an NPO status.
• C. Administer a Fleet enema.
• D. Administer intravenous antibiotics.

Correct answer: Administer a Fleet enema.

Rationale: For a child scheduled for an appendectomy, the administration of a Fleet enema is not typically required. An IV line is often initiated for fluid and medication administration, maintaining NPO status is necessary to prevent aspiration during surgery, and administering intravenous antibiotics may be part of the preoperative regimen. Therefore, the correct choice that does not apply in this case is administering a Fleet enema.

3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client’s fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

4. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

• A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
• B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
• C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
• D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Correct answer: Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

5. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

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