NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?
- A. Strange bed and surroundings.
- B. Separation from parents.
- C. Presence of other toddlers.
- D. Unfamiliar toys and games.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.
2. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
- A. Feelings of guilt
- B. Need to control others
- C. Desire for punishment
- D. Excessive physical activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
3. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.
4. Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?
- A. Transfer the nurse to another unit in the facility.
- B. Help the nurse choose a position on a low-stress unit.
- C. Encourage the nurse to attend educational programs.
- D. Help the nurse identify personal responses to job stress.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.
5. After undergoing dilation and curettage following an early miscarriage, a client is crying. Which response would the nurse give?
- A. ''This must be a very difficult experience for you to deal with.''
- B. 'You'll have other children to take the place of the child you lost.''
- C. 'Of course you're sad now, but at least you know you can get pregnant.''
- D. 'I know how you feel, but when a woman miscarries, it's usually for the best.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's grief without judgment and provides validation. Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests replacing the lost child with other children, which is insensitive and dismissive of the client's current loss. Choice C minimizes the client's feelings by focusing on the ability to get pregnant rather than addressing the emotional impact of the miscarriage. Choice D is dismissive and patronizing, suggesting that the miscarriage was for the best, which can be hurtful and diminish the client's grief.
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