NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?
- A. Strange bed and surroundings.
- B. Separation from parents.
- C. Presence of other toddlers.
- D. Unfamiliar toys and games.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.
2. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
- A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
- B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
- C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
- D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
3. A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?
- A. That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it.
- B. You should see a psychiatrist who will help you cope with this overwhelming news.
- C. Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates the symptoms of the disease.
- D. You should be glad that we caught it early so you can be cured.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.
4. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?
- A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
- B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
- C. Date new people whenever possible.
- D. Learn to constructively vent anger.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.
5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
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