Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
• B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
• C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
• D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.

2. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

3. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer both drugs.
• B. Administer the spironolactone.
• C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
• D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

4. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?

• A. The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
• B. The client states 'I just can't get relief from my pain.'
• C. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
• D. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.

5. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

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