Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
• B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
• C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
• D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.

2. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?

• A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
• B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
• C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
• D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.

3. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

4. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?

• A. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily
• B. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months
• C. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series
• D. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B are at a higher risk for developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is essential to schedule them for liver cancer screening every 6 to 12 months to detect any potential malignancies at an early stage. Advising patients to limit alcohol intake is crucial as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage; thus, patients with chronic hepatitis B are advised to completely avoid alcohol. Administering the hepatitis C vaccine is irrelevant for a patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B since it is a different virus. Monitoring anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually is not necessary as the presence of anti-HBs indicates a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, and it does not require regular monitoring.

5. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

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