a 4 year old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital the nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the prio
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.

2. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.

3. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

4. Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sports and games with rules.' For 7-year-old children, organized activities that involve rules are beneficial as they promote cooperation, logical reasoning, and the development of social skills. Sports and games with rules help children understand the importance of following guidelines, playing fairly, and working together towards a common goal. Finger paints and water play (choice B) may be more suitable for younger children and may not fully engage 7-year-olds in the same way that structured games would. Dress-up clothes and props (choice C) primarily encourage imaginative play but may not emphasize the same level of cooperation and rule-following as sports and games. Chess and television programs (choice D) may not be as interactive or physically engaging as sports and games, limiting the opportunities for social interaction and cooperation among the children.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.

Similar Questions

The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?
Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:
The nurse has provided dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. The nurse determines that further instruction is needed if the mother states that she will include which food item in the child's nutritional plan?
During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?
A healthcare professional is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses