Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?

• A. Infection related to hypertension
• B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
• C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
• D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.

2. Rhogam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

• A. RH positive, RH positive
• B. RH positive, RH negative
• C. RH negative, RH positive
• D. RH negative, RH negative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rhogam is administered to RH-negative mothers who have an RH-positive infant to prevent the development of anti-RH antibodies in the mother's system. Choice A (RH positive, RH positive) is incorrect because Rhogam is not used when both mother and infant are RH positive. Choice B (RH positive, RH negative) is incorrect because Rhogam is used when the mother is RH negative, not RH positive. Choice D (RH negative, RH negative) is incorrect as Rhogam is not typically needed if both mother and infant are RH negative.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

4. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift
• B. Administer stool softeners as ordered
• C. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine
• D. Change NPO status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a spinal cord injury, administering stool softeners as ordered is a crucial nursing intervention. Patients with spinal cord injuries are at higher risk of constipation due to decreased mobility. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and potential fecal impaction. Turning the client and using incentive spirometry each shift can be beneficial for respiratory function but is not the most vital intervention in this scenario. Turning the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine is important but is not directly related to preventing constipation. Changing NPO status is not relevant to preventing constipation or managing a spinal cord injury.

5. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Vomiting
• C. Fever
• D. Poor tolerance of light

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.

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