NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?
- A. Infection related to hypertension
- B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
- C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
- D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.
2. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Extreme Thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Acetone breath smell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.
3. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?
- A. It is the correct dose
- B. The dose is too low
- C. The dose is too high
- D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.
4. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
- B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
- D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
5. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
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