NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?
- A. Infection related to hypertension
- B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
- C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
- D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.
2. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
- A. Anesthesia reaction
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
3. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?
- A. Left-sided pneumothorax
- B. Pleural effusion
- C. Atelectasis
- D. Right-sided pneumothorax
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.
4. When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?
- A. Weak cough effort
- B. Barrel-shaped chest
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral crackles at lung bases indicate a potential acute issue like heart failure. Immediate action is necessary in this situation. The nurse should conduct further assessments such as oxygen saturation and inform the healthcare provider promptly. A barrel-shaped chest and hyperresonance to percussion are typical signs of aging and do not require immediate action. A weak cough effort is common in older patients due to age-related changes, and dry mucous membranes are also expected in older individuals. While these findings may warrant further evaluation, they do not demand immediate action like bilateral crackles at lung bases.
5. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Teach about the reason for the blood tests.
- B. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray.
- C. Teach about the need to get sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days.
- D. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to teach the patient about the need to collect sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. It is important to obtain these specimens on different days rather than all at once. Blood tests are not used for tuberculosis testing, so teaching about blood tests is not relevant. While a chest x-ray is important in tuberculosis diagnosis, it is not a bacteriologic test. The appearance on a chest x-ray alone is not sufficient to diagnose TB as other diseases can have similar findings.
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