Nursing Elites

1. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

2. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

• A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
• B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
• C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
• D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.

3. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

5. What is the purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client?

• A. Contracts specify the participation and responsibilities of both parties.
• B. Contracts indicate the feeling tone established between participants.
• C. Contracts are legally binding and prevent either party from ending the relationship prematurely.
• D. Contracts define the roles the participants take.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client is to specify the participation and responsibilities of both parties. It outlines the expectations, contributions, and duties of each party involved in the professional relationship. This ensures clarity and mutual understanding. Choice B is incorrect as contracts do not indicate feeling tone but rather focus on the professional aspects. Choice C is incorrect because while contracts are legally binding, their primary purpose is not to prevent premature termination but to establish guidelines. Choice D is incorrect as contracts focus more on responsibilities and participation rather than specific roles.

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