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Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?
- A. Starting an IV
- B. Applying oxygen
- C. Obtaining blood gases
- D. Medicating the client for pain
Correct answer: Applying oxygen
Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.
2. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client’s lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
- B. Call the nursing supervisor.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
- D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.
Correct answer: Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies’ policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.
3. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
- B. Ask the client to reflect on their behavior to determine if it is appropriate
- C. Ask the group to tell the client how they feel when she interrupts
- D. Instruct the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud to get rid of some energy
Correct answer: Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.
4. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?
- A. 15 drops per milliliter
- B. 60 drops per milliliter
- C. 20 drops per milliliter
- D. 10 drops per milliliter
Correct answer: 60 drops per milliliter
Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.
5. A nurse is assisting with data collection on the language development of a 9-month-old infant. Which developmental milestone does the nurse expect to note in an infant of this age?
- A. The infant babbles single consonants
- B. The infant babbles
- C. The infant says 'Mama.'
- D. The infant says 'Mama.'
Correct answer: The infant says 'Mama.'
Rationale: An 8- to 9-month-old infant can string vowels and consonants together. The first words, such as 'Mama,' 'Daddy,' 'bye-bye,' and 'baby,' begin to have meaning. A 1- to 3-month-old infant produces cooing sounds. Babbling is common in a 3- to 4-month-old. Single-consonant babbling occurs between 6 and 8 months of age. Therefore, the milestone of the infant saying 'Mama' is the most appropriate for a 9-month-old, indicating early language development. The other choices are developmentally inaccurate for a 9-month-old infant.
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