Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
• D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.

2. An older client reports that she has been awakening during the night, awakes early in the morning and is unable to fall back to sleep, and feels sleepy during the daytime. Based on these reported data, what should the nurse do?

• A. Encourage the client to consume stimulants such as caffeinated coffee or tea during the daytime hours.
• B. Ask the registered nurse to obtain a prescription for a nighttime sedative.
• C. Report the findings to the registered nurse.
• D. Document the findings in the medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age-related changes in sleep include reduced sleep efficiency, increased incidence of nocturnal awakening, increased incidence of early-morning awakening, and increased daytime sleepiness. Since the reported data are normal age-related changes, the appropriate action for the nurse would be to document the findings in the medical record. Reporting the findings to the registered nurse is unnecessary as these changes are expected with aging and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Prescribing sedatives should be avoided as a first-line approach due to potential side effects and risks, especially in older adults. Encouraging the consumption of stimulants like caffeinated beverages during the daytime may further disrupt sleep patterns, which is counterproductive in addressing the client's reported sleep issues.

3. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

4. A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? What position should the nurse encourage the mother to assume?

• A. Prone
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Hands and knees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During back labor, when the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman's sacral promontory, the hands-and-knees position is encouraged. This position helps the fetus move away from the sacral promontory, reducing back pain and enhancing the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. A prone position would be difficult for the woman to assume and not helpful in relieving back discomfort. The supine position is risky due to supine hypotension, while standing may increase pressure, worsening backache.

5. When a nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign, what does this indicate?

• A. That the cervix appears violet
• B. That cervical softening is present
• C. A positive sign of pregnancy
• D. A thinning of the cervix

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the Chadwick sign is that the cervix appears violet in color. This sign is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the violet coloration of the cervix due to increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. It is not a definitive positive sign of pregnancy but rather a probable one. Choices B and D are incorrect as cervical softening is known as the Goodell sign, and thinning of the cervix is referred to as the Hegar sign. These signs are also probable signs of pregnancy, but they do not specifically indicate the Chadwick sign.

Similar Questions