NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:
- A. Have decreased anxiety.
- B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
- C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
- D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.
2. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:
- A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
- B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
- C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
- D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.
3. A client who recently lost 50 pounds just received news that she is pregnant. A possible nursing diagnosis is:
- A. Actual Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- B. Potential Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- C. Actual Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
- D. Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's recent weight loss and subsequent pregnancy could lead to concerns about weight regain and body image. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is 'Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).' This diagnosis reflects the client's potential emotional response to the fear of losing the progress achieved through weight loss and dealing with changes in body image due to pregnancy. Options A and C imply that low self-esteem is already present, which is not supported by the information given. Option B is not as suitable as the client's self-esteem issues are more related to the fear of weight regain and pregnancy, making option D the best choice.
4. A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit. Stat lab values reveal Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, K+ 1.9, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. The nurse evaluates that the client is experiencing which of the following?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Myelosuppression
- D. Leukocytosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' The potassium level of 1.9 indicates low potassium levels, a condition known as hypokalemia. The other lab values are within normal ranges: Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. Hypernatremia (choice A) refers to high sodium levels, which are not present in this case. Myelosuppression (choice C) is a decrease in bone marrow activity, which is not indicated by the lab values provided. Leukocytosis (choice D) is an increase in white blood cells, which is also not present based on the given values.
5. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?
- A. Blood
- B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
- C. Stool
- D. Genital secretions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access