Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

2. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?

• A. “You will need to lie flat during the exam.”
• B. “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.”
• C. “You will be asleep during the procedure.”
• D. “The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure.”

Correct answer: “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.”

Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.

3. A health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant. The health care worker should:

• A. immediately contact child protective services
• B. provide the mother with literature about child care
• C. consult a therapist to help the mother work out her fears
• D. refer the mother to parenting classes

Correct answer: refer the mother to parenting classes

Rationale: Prevention of child abuse is centered on teaching parents how to care for their child and cope with the demands of infant care. Parenting classes can help build self-confidence, self-esteem, and coping skills. Parents benefit by understanding the developmental needs of their children, while learning how to manage their home environment more effectively. The classes also increase the parents' social contacts and teach about community resources. Contacting child protective services (Choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as there is no indication of abuse or neglect. Providing literature (Choice B) may not be as effective as parenting classes in addressing the mother's concerns. Consulting a therapist (Choice C) may be beneficial for underlying mental health issues, but parenting classes specifically focus on child care and coping skills, making Choice D the most suitable option in this situation.

4. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

• A. “My skin is always so dry.”
• B. “I often use a laxative for constipation.”
• C. “I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea.”
• D. “I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine.”

Correct answer: “I often use a laxative for constipation.”

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

5. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. “You can eat food prepared in a microwave.”
• B. “You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks.”
• C. “You should use your cellphone on your right side.”
• D. “You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place.”

Correct answer: “You should use your cellphone on your right side.”

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

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