Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

2. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period?

• A. Teaching perineal wound care techniques
• B. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• C. Encouraging early ambulation
• D. Facilitating perineal wound drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care during the post-op period for a client who underwent an abdominal perineal resection is to facilitate perineal wound drainage. This is crucial for preventing infection of the surgical site and promoting healing. Teaching perineal wound care techniques, as in choice A, is more appropriate than ileostomy care in this scenario. While monitoring electrolyte levels is important, it is not the priority compared to ensuring proper wound drainage, making choice B less crucial. Encouraging early ambulation, as in choice C, is beneficial but not as critical as facilitating wound drainage immediately post-op.

3. If the client is receiving peritoneal dialysis and the dialysate returns cloudy, what should the nurse do?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Send a specimen to the lab
• C. Strain the dialysate
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the dialysate returns cloudy, it could indicate the presence of infection, and sending a specimen to the lab for evaluation is crucial to determine the cause. Documenting the finding alone, as in choice A, may not provide enough information for proper intervention. Straining the dialysate, as in choice C, is not a standard practice and may not help identify the underlying issue. Obtaining a complete blood count, as in choice D, is not directly related to addressing cloudiness in the dialysate. However, the healthcare provider might order a white blood cell count to assess for infection.

4. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

5. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

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