NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?
- A. Diuresis
- B. Increased fluid retention
- C. Elevated bicarbonate level
- D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'
2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?
- A. Nasal congestion
- B. Hiccups
- C. Blood glucose of 150
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
3. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
4. How can light therapy be effective?
- A. Improving weight problems.
- B. Assisting with allergies.
- C. Using in alternative medical treatments.
- D. Working with sleep patterns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Light therapy can be effective in treating problems associated with sleep patterns, stress, moods, jaundice in newborns, and seasonal affective disorders. While light therapy may have other potential benefits, such as improving mood or helping with seasonal affective disorders, the main focus and effectiveness of light therapy are commonly linked to regulating sleep patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Working with sleep patterns.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as light therapy is not primarily used for overcoming weight problems, helping with allergies, or solely as an alternative medical treatment.
5. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:
- A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
- B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
- C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
- D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.
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