Nursing Elites

1. What ethical obligations do professional nurses have according to the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses?

• A. patients.
• B. the nursing profession.
• C. provide high-quality care.
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'all of the above.' According to the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses, professional nurses have ethical obligations to patients (clients), the nursing profession, and providing high-quality care. These elements are fundamental principles outlined in the code of ethics to guide nurses in their practice. Choice A is correct as nurses prioritize the well-being and care of their patients. Choice B is correct as nurses are expected to uphold the values and integrity of the nursing profession. Choice C is correct as providing high-quality care is a core ethical obligation of nurses. Therefore, all the choices align with the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses.

2. At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?

• A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
• B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
• C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
• D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.

3. The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client's J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?

• A. The client has a history of Type II diabetes.
• B. The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
• C. The client is on fluid restriction.
• D. The pharmacy has provided phenytoin in tablet form.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client's nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.

4. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

Similar Questions