the client is scheduled for a tensilon test to check for myasthenia gravis which medication should be kept available during the test
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NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

2. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

3. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.

4. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, 'I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.' Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can raise the client's self-esteem by acknowledging the client's feelings and providing positive reinforcement. Choice C shows empathy and support by recognizing the client's strength and potential to learn. This response encourages the client to believe in her abilities and instills confidence. Choices A and B may come across as judgmental or critical, which can further lower the client's self-esteem. Choice D, while offering a solution, does not address the client's emotional needs or provide direct reassurance about her capabilities.

5. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

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