NCLEX NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
2. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
- B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
- C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
- D. A client with Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.
3. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?
- A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
- B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
- C. Take the medication with water only
- D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications
Correct answer: Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
- A. 70 mg/dL
- B. 55 mg/dL
- C. 110 mg/dL
- D. 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: 55 mg/dL
Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
5. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
- A. Cranial nerves V and VI
- B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- D. Cranial nerves IX and X
Correct answer: Cranial nerves IX and X
Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
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