Nursing Elites

1. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

2. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

3. When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?

• A. polyandry
• B. sororal
• C. nonsororal
• D. soronal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'soronal.' The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as sororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands, which is rare. Nonsororal polygamy is when the wives are not sisters. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife’s sister if she dies. Therefore, in this scenario, the family structure described by the client fits the definition of soronal polygamy.

4. A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?

• A. The children should wear long sleeves and long pants while outside.
• B. Apply insect repellent containing DEET when the children are outside.
• C. Remove standing water from the property.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best advice to provide to the mother is 'All of the above.' It is recommended that the children wear insect repellent containing DEET and long-sleeved shirts and long pants when they are outside. This helps in preventing mosquito bites, which can transmit the West Nile Virus. Additionally, removing standing water from areas where the children play can help decrease the number of breeding mosquitoes, reducing the risk of contracting the virus. These methods work in combination to provide effective prevention against the West Nile Virus, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C individually address important prevention measures, but a combination of all three strategies is the most comprehensive approach to protect the children from contracting the illness.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

Similar Questions