Nursing Elites

1. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

2. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.

3. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

4. A client who has undergone a total hip replacement is told that she will need to go to an extended care rehabilitation facility for therapy before going home. Which member of the healthcare team should the nurse ask to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Clergy
• D. Social worker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate member of the healthcare team to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility is the social worker. Social workers are trained to provide counseling services, emotional support, arrange placements in care facilities, and locate financial resources for clients. While clergy provide spiritual support and guidance, physical therapists assist in physical treatments, and occupational therapists help with activities of daily living, the social worker is best suited to address the client's needs related to discharge planning and transition. Therefore, the correct answer is the social worker.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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