Nursing Elites

1. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

2. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

3. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

• A. the client who most recently rang their call bell
• B. the client who has been waiting the longest for their call bell to be answered
• C. the client who is in the most pain
• D. the client who may have a risk for an airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

4. How does cancer affect pain tolerance in elderly clients?

• A. Remain constant.
• B. Decrease.
• C. Increase.
• D. Cancer has no impact on pain tolerance in elderly clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pain tolerance in elderly clients with cancer is likely to decrease due to factors such as diminished adaptative capacity, increased physical discomfort, and the psychological impact of the disease. Cancer is known to cause various physical and emotional stressors that can lower the pain threshold, leading to a decrease in pain tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cancer and its associated effects typically result in a decrease in pain tolerance rather than remaining constant, increasing, or having no impact.

5. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

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