how many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

2. In a community hospital, a nurse is employed as a staff nurse and is supervised by a nurse manager. The nurse understands that in this position, the term authority most appropriately refers to which description?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to ensure that a decision is enforced. In the context of the nurse's position supervised by a nurse manager, having authority means having the official power to ensure that organizational decisions are carried out. Choice A, accepting responsibility for the actions of others, is more related to accountability rather than authority. Choice C, bearing the legal responsibility for others' performance of tasks, is more about legal liability rather than authority. Choice D, taking responsibility for what staff members do, is similar to choice A and is more about accountability rather than having the official power to enforce decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to the concept of authority in the context described.

3. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.

4. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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