how many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

2. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal distress is indicated, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation and blood flow to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve blood flow and oxygen delivery, administering oxygen increases oxygenation levels, and turning the mother can help optimize fetal oxygenation. Decreasing maternal fluids would negatively impact blood volume and can worsen fetal distress, making it the exception among the listed interventions. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids should not be performed when fetal distress is present.

3. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.

4. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

5. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

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