how many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

2. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.

3. Which of these would be the most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication should include details such as the medication, the client's statement of refusal, and the review of potential risks. Choice C accurately captures all these essential elements, making it the correct answer. Choice A lacks details about the client's refusal and the review of risks. Choice B includes unnecessary emotional descriptions and a plan of action that might not be appropriate. Choice D uses abbreviations that may not be universally understood, lacks proper punctuation, and also does not provide a detailed account of the refusal and the review of risks.

4. A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A gastroenterologist specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. Therefore, clients with digestive system diseases should consult a gastroenterologist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary system diseases are managed by urologists, female reproductive system diseases by gynecologists, and nervous system diseases by neurologists.

5. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

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