NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:
- A. mild.
- B. moderate.
- C. severe.
- D. panic.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Based on the symptoms described, Ashley's level of anxiety should be assessed as severe. In severe anxiety, individuals have difficulty solving problems and understanding their environment. They often exhibit somatic symptoms like dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. In contrast, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance. Moderate anxiety involves grasping less information, mild difficulty in problem-solving, and slight changes in vital signs. Panic, on the other hand, is characterized by markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, in Ashley's case, the presence of somatic symptoms and vital sign changes indicates severe anxiety.
2. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period?
- A. Teaching perineal wound care techniques
- B. Monitoring electrolyte levels
- C. Encouraging early ambulation
- D. Facilitating perineal wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care during the post-op period for a client who underwent an abdominal perineal resection is to facilitate perineal wound drainage. This is crucial for preventing infection of the surgical site and promoting healing. Teaching perineal wound care techniques, as in choice A, is more appropriate than ileostomy care in this scenario. While monitoring electrolyte levels is important, it is not the priority compared to ensuring proper wound drainage, making choice B less crucial. Encouraging early ambulation, as in choice C, is beneficial but not as critical as facilitating wound drainage immediately post-op.
3. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
- A. IV infiltration may occur.
- B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
- C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
- D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.
4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
5. A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?
- A. structure
- B. relaxation technique
- C. time management
- D. regular exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.
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